Peter Grove
RefChat Addict
Yes, it certainly could. But the mere fact that it is considered to be foul language (which as mentioned, is dependent on a number of different and not necessarily well-defined factors) is not enough, in and of itself, to make it an offence according to the way the Laws are written.Well, foul language could still be interpreted as 'offensive' language.
While I can't say this for sure (there's nothing in any published IFAB document that I am aware of) I have always suspected that one of the reasons for the change from "foul or abusive" to "offensive, insulting or abusive" was precisely because of the difficulty in defining exactly what is or isn't foul language.