Hi all,
Wondering if I can pick your brains on this one.
Team A were in the attacking half and their player on the ball was fouled but there was a good opportunity for an advantage so I waved play-on. Another Team A player tried to play a long ball but didn’t find their man at all.
I went back to the free-kick as no advantage was played.
At HT Team B’s coach - who wasn’t rude but merely pointed out - the advantage was played to a player who was offside and therefore the advantage was over.
Despite the ball was nowhere near the offside player in question it got me thinking...is he right if I wave advantage and the following ball finds Team A in an offside position I therefore give the indirect FK for offside?
My mind has gone completely blank...
Wondering if I can pick your brains on this one.
Team A were in the attacking half and their player on the ball was fouled but there was a good opportunity for an advantage so I waved play-on. Another Team A player tried to play a long ball but didn’t find their man at all.
I went back to the free-kick as no advantage was played.
At HT Team B’s coach - who wasn’t rude but merely pointed out - the advantage was played to a player who was offside and therefore the advantage was over.
Despite the ball was nowhere near the offside player in question it got me thinking...is he right if I wave advantage and the following ball finds Team A in an offside position I therefore give the indirect FK for offside?
My mind has gone completely blank...