I am genuinely interested in the views of other refs, as on a few forums I have seen heated debate - I’m surprised that there is no comment on this group …I thought it was harsh if given for unnatural position. Would have been nice to hear the comm on this. I am not a West Ham supporter btw claiming conspiracies!
Interesting - which part of “the offence” do you think is wrong?It helps to post a link to the incident:It can be seen as a handball offence but I think it is debatable and VAR should not have been involved, as not a clear and obvious error.
Would I have given that myself? Probably not, I generally want to be much more certain of an offence in order to disallow a goal.
Because the player who handled the ball is not the goalscorer, to be penalised it must either be deliberate handling or the arm must be making their body unnaturally bigger.Interesting - which part of “the offence” do you think is wrong?
Not a clear handball? (I guess that’s what MO missed and was given to him by VAR)
So if VAR says player handled ball, does MO have any choice but disallow? (According to LOTG or is there a “get out” interpretation?)
The VAR is only supposed to recommend an OFR when the VAR believes there was a C&O error.So if VAR says player handled ball, does MO have any choice but disallow?