A&H

Brentford v WHU

lesbobly

Member
NO GOAL! Referee Oliver judges Mubama to have handballed in the build-up to Ings' goal.

Interested to hear opinions on this decision … seems to have caused quite a debate …
 
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I thought it was harsh if given for unnatural position. Would have been nice to hear the comm on this. I am not a West Ham supporter btw claiming conspiracies!
 
I thought it was harsh if given for unnatural position. Would have been nice to hear the comm on this. I am not a West Ham supporter btw claiming conspiracies!
I am genuinely interested in the views of other refs, as on a few forums I have seen heated debate - I’m surprised that there is no comment on this group …

I was interested to hear MOTD comments like “ref did not use common sense” - I know this was a VERY senior ref and as a humble 7 I’m not questioning his call - but for my own development would be interested to know if fellow grassroots refs would have made same decision or gone with the “common sense” 🤔 call …
 
It helps to post a link to the incident:
It can be seen as a handball offence but I think it is debatable and VAR should not have been involved, as not a clear and obvious error.

Would I have given that myself? Probably not, I generally want to be much more certain of an offence in order to disallow a goal.
 
It helps to post a link to the incident:
It can be seen as a handball offence but I think it is debatable and VAR should not have been involved, as not a clear and obvious error.

Would I have given that myself? Probably not, I generally want to be much more certain of an offence in order to disallow a goal.
Interesting - which part of “the offence” do you think is wrong?

Not a clear handball? (I guess that’s what MO missed and was given to him by VAR)

So if VAR says player handled ball, does MO have any choice but disallow? (According to LOTG or is there a “get out” interpretation?)
 
Interesting - which part of “the offence” do you think is wrong?

Not a clear handball? (I guess that’s what MO missed and was given to him by VAR)

So if VAR says player handled ball, does MO have any choice but disallow? (According to LOTG or is there a “get out” interpretation?)
Because the player who handled the ball is not the goalscorer, to be penalised it must either be deliberate handling or the arm must be making their body unnaturally bigger.

This definitely was not deliberate as the ball instantly struck the arm after rebounding from the post. To me the position of the arm also seems fairly natural for the situation.

The referee during the on-field review would also be entitled to stick with that decision even if the VAR has a different opinion.
 
He can only have given that for intentional handling. Can't possibly be for accidental handling leading to a goal as that requires it to be the player who's hand / arm it accidentally hits to immediately score. Two other attacking players have touched the ball here before it went in the goal.

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So if VAR says player handled ball, does MO have any choice but disallow?
The VAR is only supposed to recommend an OFR when the VAR believes there was a C&O error.

The R is only supposed to reverse if he agrees there was a C&O error.

So both are applying the same standard. If the R goes to the screen for a review and doesn't change the call, than either (1) the VAR was wrong and should not have sent it down, or (2) the R was wrong to not change the call.

That is why it is rare--but not unheard of--for the R not to change the call after being called to the monitor.
 
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