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Throw in played by teammate out of bounds

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OK, I got an answer from Mr Elleray at the IFAB. Well, I got two answers as I asked for clarification.

In the case of the original post and if the thrower volleys the ball before it enters the FoP - it's a retake. So, yes, you were (all) right!

However, you might have been thinking it but no one clearly stated the reason, and the reason is not clearly stated in the LotG. Maybe @JamesL was heading here in earlier posts...

Mr Elleray says:
"When the ball passes over the touchline it must be returned to the FoP with a throw-in; in the situation you describe this did not occur so the throw-in must be re-taken"

This simplifies everything for me and is very clear. I suggested that this could be more clearly stated in the LotG in future.
I really appreciate the debate on this pedantry, thank you.
 
The Ref Stop
santa sangria said:
OK, I got an answer from Mr Elleray at the IFAB. Well, I got two answers as I asked for clarification.

In the case of the original post and if the thrower volleys the ball before it enters the FoP - it's a retake. So, yes, you were (all) right!

However, you might have been thinking it but no one clearly stated the reason, and the reason is not clearly stated in the LotG. Maybe @JamesL was heading here in earlier posts...

Mr Elleray says:
"When the ball passes over the touchline it must be returned to the FoP with a throw-in; in the situation you describe this did not occur so the throw-in must be re-taken"

This simplifies everything for me and is very clear. I suggested that this could be more clearly stated in the LotG in future.
I really appreciate the debate on this pedantry, thank you.
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What a long winded way of getting to the answer you were actually told in post two!
Have more confidence in the forum young sir........
 
Peter Grove said:
There are several laws that contain a procedure. None of them say that they are the correct procedure. So if you think the IFAB has given us a bunch of procedures that are incorrect then you may as well just throw the Law book away.

Alternatively, you could choose to believe that the procedures given in the laws are in fact, the correct procedures. I know which option I would choose.


Once again, there is no offence here. Playing a ball which is off the field (and therefore while the ball is not in play) is not an offence.
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That last paragraph is particularly important in relation to a GK. Defending team mess up/mis kick a GK and its heading to an attacker, nothing to stop defender (kicker or other) kicking the ball again before it leaves the area - no offence its a re take.

Few years ago Joe Hart (accidently) kicked ball twice from a GK, ball went straight to attacker (Charlie Austin) who put the ball in the net.

Uproar (inc me) at the time, but eagle eyed AR had spotted the double touch and GK was retaken.

Doesn't matter if a team mate, oppo or passing dog touch the ball before it is in play - its a retake.
 
That's very true. Incidentally, though, if the referee deems that this immunity is being abused, I have read that it is possible to penalise for delaying the restart of play. Since the ball is dead, however, in the case of goal kicks, throw-ins or any set piece, the kick has to be completed. Therefore, not an IFK/foul throw restart.
 
SLI39 said:
Incidentally, though, if the referee deems that this immunity is being abused, I have read that it is possible to penalise for delaying the restart of play.
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Which is why I said the following in an earlier post:
Peter Grove said:
Touching a ball which is not in play, is not an offence (unless the referee thinks its part of a ploy to delay the restart which doesn't appear to be the case here).
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santa sangria said:
:)

But, as my 2 year old would say: "why daddy why"?#€%&/?
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As far as I could tell, the answers you were given were perfectly clear (there was no offence, the ball was never in play therefore a retake by the same team is the only possibility) you just kept choosing not to believe them. It didn't need any clarification from the IFAB, the wording in the Laws themselves give us more than adequate information to reach the correct conclusion - which we pretty much unanimously did.
 
Peter Grove said:
As far as I could tell, the answers you were given were perfectly clear (there was no offence, the ball was never in play therefore a retake by the same team is the only possibility) you just kept choosing not to believe them. It didn't need any clarification from the IFAB, the wording in the Laws themselves give us more than adequate information to reach the correct conclusion - which we pretty much unanimously did.
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I respectfully disagree there ;)
 
I just read this and can't believe
a) any couldn't interpret the LOTG to come up with a retake initially or
b) there have been three pages of debate about? WTF

As @Mintyref stated it was answered the second post.....someone give me strength!
 
It seems that SS's query is solved to everyone (apart from SS himself possibly;)).

However...(super pedantry and unlikely situation alert)...if a player takes a throw where he does not have both feet on the ground and it touches the ground before it enters the FOP, then what?

The law states:
At the moment of delivering the ball, the thrower must have part of each foot on the touchline or on the ground outside the touchline.

And
The ball is in play when it enters the field of play. If the ball touches the ground before entering, the throw-in is retaken by the same team from the same position. If the throw-in is not taken correctly it is retaken by the opposing team.

So...ball has touched the ground before it enters the field of play so retake but the the throw in has not been taken correctly so throw to the opposition...
 
McTavish said:
It seems that SS's query is solved to everyone (apart from SS himself possibly;)).

However...(super pedantry and unlikely situation alert)...if a player takes a throw where he does not have both feet on the ground and it touches the ground before it enters the FOP, then what?

The law states:
At the moment of delivering the ball, the thrower must have part of each foot on the touchline or on the ground outside the touchline.

And
The ball is in play when it enters the field of play. If the ball touches the ground before entering, the throw-in is retaken by the same team from the same position. If the throw-in is not taken correctly it is retaken by the opposing team.

So...ball has touched the ground before it enters the field of play so retake but the the throw in has not been taken correctly so throw to the opposition...
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In the real world (rather than the fantasy land populated by Santa and his elves :rolleyes:) any AR who was on the ball would be flagging for a foul throw as soon as he saw the feet incorrectly positioned at the moment of delivery ... so where the ball landed would become a moot point
 
Come here. There's more. Just had a good question on the areferee.com quiz:

- A throw in is correctly taken and the thrower deliberately handles the ball to stop the ball reaching an opponent:
a) yellow card USB, IDFK
b) yellow card USB, DFK
c) yellow card USB, DFK or PK
d) IDFK

I think there's something wrong with this question/answer that has been illuminated by this discussion. c) would be correct but... What I have learnt here is that it can't be USB, DFK/PK if the ball did not enter the FoP, yes? If the ball was deliberately handled by the thrower before entering the FoP then delaying the restart YC and retake is the only call, right?

(The way the law is phrased: "For any other offence the throw in is taken by a player of the opposing team"... again is confusing if you stick to reading what is written in law 15 as it suggests it's not a retake.)
 
santa sangria said:
Come here. There's more. Just had a good question on the areferee.com quiz:

- A throw in is correctly taken and the thrower deliberately handles the ball to stop the ball reaching an opponent:
a) yellow card USB, IDFK
b) yellow card USB, DFK
c) yellow card USB, DFK or PK
d) IDFK

I think there's something wrong with this question/answer that has been illuminated by this discussion. c) would be correct but... What I have learnt here is that it can't be USB, DFK/PK if the ball did not enter the FoP, yes? If the ball was deliberately handled by the thrower before entering the FoP then delaying the restart YC and retake is the only call, right?

(The way the law is phrased: "For any other offence the throw in is taken by a player of the opposing team"... again is confusing if you stick to reading what is written in law 15 as it suggests it's not a retake.)
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How could the thrower handle the ball, he'd have to be an octopus to handle a ball that he has legally thrown.

I'm very tempted to close this one down now. The original question has been answered, including clarification from IFAB, and we're now going off topic. In fact, just writing that I've realised I am going to close it.
 
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