A&H

Dropped ball dilemma

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CuriousFan

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Last night, Bruno Fernandez jumped in on a drop ball after it had hit the ground and Westham players did not play at it. He went on to put it in the net. John Moss re dropped the ball. From my interpretation of Law 8 (restarts) I believe a goal kick should’ve instead been awarded to Westham as 1: Fernandez was 4.5 yards away when the ball was dropped, 2: The ball becomes in play when it hits the ground, 3: A minimum of two players must touch the ball before scoring from a drop ball. Thoughts?
 
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yes i was watching live and my immediate reaction was goal (not knowing the law correctly!)

i think your conclusion is correct as only one person touched it (assuming fernandes was further than 4.5m away as i havent seen it back)

unless the west ham player wasnt ready though i'm not sure that's covered in law!
 
Not seen it, which team was being given the dropped ball please?

west ham

ball was dropped to the west ham player who seemed to refuse to play it, united player ran in, took the ball and scored without it touching another player
 
Would the correct decision not be to blow the moment the Man Utd player touches the ball before a West Ham player?

yes the ball is active when it hits the ground but, it unless its played by a West Ham player, its not really?
by active, I tale it as, when it hits ground West Ham can now play it, as its theirs and theirs only
 
Would the correct decision not be to blow the moment the Man Utd player touches the ball before a West Ham player?

yes the ball is active when it hits the ground but, it unless its played by a West Ham player, its not really?
by active, I tale it as, when it hits ground West Ham can now play it, as its theirs and theirs only

is that right in law, as it is written?
 
Am out then as am possibly wrongly needing West Ham to touch it

and of course if am incorrect, I going forward will have the correct information

i have taken active, when hits ground, to assume the West Ham player is taken for granted that he gets first touch, as its not active until it hits the ground.

lets see what other posters come up with
 
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There's no need for the WHU player to touch the ball.

The ball is in play when it hits the ground.

Fernandes (ManUtd player) appeared to be at least 4m away from the ball when it was played. If he wasn't, then to pull it back for distance, he needed to be cautioned. He was not.

The whistle was blown when the Manchester player was approaching the West Ham penalty area with the ball. When it came back, Moss (the ref) pointed at the WHU player like he was required to play it first.

Which he isn't.

It should've been a goal kick. Or a DB to Manchester United just outside of the West Ham penalty area.
 
Looks like there's more than one player within 4-yards when it's dropped.
Failure to respect the required distance one for each side anyone? 😉
 
Using the term "ball is active" just confuses everything. There is no such thing in law. It's either in play or out of play.

Haven't seen the incident but it doesn't surprise me PL referee making it up to get the desired outcome (in most cases not knowing the correct LOTG decision).
 
Looks like there's more than one player within 4-yards when it's dropped.
Failure to respect the required distance one for each side anyone? 😉
 
There's no need for the WHU player to touch the ball.

The ball is in play when it hits the ground.

Fernandes (ManUtd player) appeared to be at least 4m away from the ball when it was played. If he wasn't, then to pull it back for distance, he needed to be cautioned. He was not.

The whistle was blown when the Manchester player was approaching the West Ham penalty area with the ball. When it came back, Moss (the ref) pointed at the WHU player like he was required to play it first.

Which he isn't.

It should've been a goal kick. Or a DB to Manchester United just outside of the West Ham penalty area.

If there is no requirenent for West Han to play the ball first, that makes it a contested drop ball with a head start distance wise for WestHam?
Drop balls are non contested.

That said I be stunned if I agree with Moss twice in a week ( well i agreed with his original pk and card ( yelow or red for debate) until he took it back.
 
If there is no requirenent for West Han to play the ball first, that makes it a contested drop ball with a head start distance wise for WestHam?
Drop balls are non contested.

That said I be stunned if I agree with Moss twice in a week ( well i agreed with his original pk and card ( yelow or red for debate) until he took it back.
There is no such thing in law as contested or non-contested.
Think of it this way, if the opponents can't touch the ball after it touches the ground and in play, and the team the ball is dropped to is leading, they can just wait there for the rest of the game without touching the ball untill full time (assuming second half).
 
There is no such thing in law as contested or non-contested.
Think of it this way, if the opponents can't touch the ball after it touches the ground and in play, and the team the ball is dropped to is leading, they can just wait there for the rest of the game without touching the ball untill full time (assuming second half).
fair comment
 
This is a really interesting one.
Assuming that all relevant players are at the correct distances then as soon as the ball hits the ground it is in play.

The law now says this

If a dropped ball enters the goal without touching at least two players play is restarted with:
  • a goal kick if it enters the opponents’ goal
  • a corner kick if it enters the team’s goal

So in this case it looks like a literal reading indicates that as it was West Ham’s dropped ball, it should have been a CORNER for Man United?!
 
This is a really interesting one.
Assuming that all relevant players are at the correct distances then as soon as the ball hits the ground it is in play.

The law now says this



So in this case it looks like a literal reading indicates that as it was West Ham’s dropped ball, it should have been a CORNER for Man United?!
Didn't a man United player put it into opponents goal? That means a goal kick. There is nothing in there saying "the opponent of the team which the ball was dropped to"
 
I think the law cannot cover every circumstance. A dropped ball being played first by the wrong team is not covered. JM quite right to improvise.
 
I think the law cannot cover every circumstance. A dropped ball being played first by the wrong team is not covered. JM quite right to improvise.
Disagree. The law does not need to specifically cover it. The general laws cover it.

The law requires the referee to drop the ball for one player of the team that last touched the ball. The ball is in play once touching the ground. There is no requirement for the player whom the ball was dropped to touching the ball.

Its like saying the law does not cover if the first player that touches the ball is a team mate of the one it was dropped to. Or saying the law does not cover if the player whom the ball was dropped to kicks it directly over the touch line. In both these cases the general laws cover them.
 
To simplify this, if the Man United player kicked the ball directly over the touchline I am sure we would all give a throw in. The same process means it's a goal kick if he kicked it over the goal line (can't be a goal as it was directly over).
 
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