It's not an oversight, it's a wholly logical position. No 'obvious goal' has been denied. I don't see how you can possibly say that a player standing somewhere over in the middle of the field has been denied an obvious goal (or goal scoring opportunity) while the ball was off the field, beyond the sideline and out of play. The player doesn't have the ball, we have no way of knowing if he was actually going to receive it, no way of knowing whether, if he received it, he was going to be able to control it successfully, etc, etc. Apart from anything else, we don't know if the throw was going to be made legally or with sufficient power and direction to even reach the player let alone what might have happened if it did. So how can we say the player ever actually had any opportunity, let alone an obvious one?
It's like saying that if a player was about to make a pass to a team mate, who if he received the ball, would have been in a good position to score, but the player with the ball gets fouled before he can make the pass, you're going to send off the opponent who committed the foul for serious foul play whether it was SFP or not because you think that if the player had made the pass, his team mate would likely have had an OGSO.
I don't believe any referee should even consider calling an imaginary SFP offence on the basis that an OGSO might potentially have occurred afterwards if a pass was successful.
In the same vein, to say you can decide before a throw in has even been taken, that a DOGSO offence has occurred, and therefore a player should be sent off, stretches the bounds of logic and the law way beyond the breaking point, as far as I'm concerned.