Question from the other (Fans'!) site I go on

[PinnerPaul]

Why DOES the ball have to leave the area from a GK or FK?

Who benefits, because I can't think of any good reason why it is so?

Thought one of the 'historians' on here might be able to shed some light on the origin of this one?

Thanks!

 

[Ciley Myrus]

So an opponent cant get the ball in an unreasonable/unfair position?

 

[PinnerPaul]

So an opponent cant get the ball in an unreasonable/unfair position?

Nope! because keeping oppo out of the area until ball is kicked does that anyway!

Next!

 

[Ciley Myrus]

Nope! because keeping oppo out of the area until ball is kicked does that anyway!

Next!

Ah but without the law, the striker could run in "when it is kicked" ? So although its been kicked, it might still only be at the pen spot when the striker runs in?

 

[PinnerPaul]

Ah but without the law, the striker could run in "when it is kicked" ? So although its been kicked, it might still only be at the pen spot when the striker runs in?

Yeah I suppose but that doesn't explain why IFAB are considering allowing fks to be played again in the area next season.

Someone suggested it was from the 'back pass days' - this prevented defender & GK playing 'keep ball' from a GK

What about that theory?

 

[Big Cat]

Why DOES the ball have to leave the area from a GK or FK?

Who benefits, because I can't think of any good reason why it is so?

Thought one of the 'historians' on here might be able to shed some light on the origin of this one?

Thanks!

It's the professional equivalent to U7s 'Retreat to Halfway' rule

 

[JamesL]

Come on @Ciley Myrus! Though you would know the answer to this... was it not your hay day?

In 1936, after a proposal by the Scottish Football Association, a new restriction was added: it was specified that the goal-kick has to put the ball into play beyond the penalty area; if the ball does not leave the penalty area, the kick has to be retaken. The goalkeeper was also explicitly forbidden from "receiv[ing] the ball into his hands from a goal-kick in order that he may thereafter kick it into play".

Source: Wikipedia

 

[JamesL]

Cannot find any reasoning, though. @Peter Grove will be the man if anyone.

 

[Ciley Myrus]

Come on @Ciley Myrus! Though you would know the answer to this... was it not your hay day?

In 1936, after a proposal by the Scottish Football Association, a new restriction was added: it was specified that the goal-kick has to put the ball into play beyond the penalty area; if the ball does not leave the penalty area, the kick has to be retaken. The goalkeeper was also explicitly forbidden from "receiv[ing] the ball into his hands from a goal-kick in order that he may thereafter kick it into play".

Source: Wikipedia

Even then i used my own rules..

 

[cwyeary]

It's why I'm a fan of changing the law as it is proposed. The law doesn't make sense in a day where teams want to play from the back. I'm glad it's probably going away.

 

[bester]

Imagine 10-yards distance away from goal kicks was a law at some point? Making it outside the area obviously saves the referee faffing about managing that. In some kids and women's game setting up a wall 10-yards from a goal kick would be a very effective tactic.

 

[Sheffields Finest]

Does @Padfoot know???

 

[Peter Grove]

Yeah I suppose but that doesn't explain why IFAB are considering allowing fks to be played again in the area next season.

No, but as I keep on saying, the IFAB has a website where they give various proposed changes and explain them. I really, really recommend everyone who contributes to discussions on this site to go there and read it, it would save a lot of time and unnecessary questions. The IFAB lists the reason for this proposal as being that it:

can speed up the game, stop time-wasting and may lead to a more constructive/controlled restart rather than the current ‘long kick’.

Why DOES the ball have to leave the area from a GK or FK?

Who benefits, because I can't think of any good reason why it is so?

Thought one of the 'historians' on here might be able to shed some light on the origin of this one

Unfortunately, the IFAB meeting minutes from this period did not include the reasons for amendments. What I would say is that the way the change was worded, it suggests to me that the main concern was to stop the ball being played directly to the goalkeeper inside the penalty area, so the keeper could pick it up and kick it down field - and the best way to prevent this was to say no other player could play the ball until it was outside the penalty area.

 

[one]

As Peter pointed out no reason is given. A seperate sentence was used to prevent the keeper from receiving it into his hands though so that is unlikely to be the reason for it as it will make that sentence redundant.

The only reason I can think of for widening the 10 yards to the entire PA for goal kicks is it may have become a common theme for opponents to form a 2 or 3 man wall in the hope of a rebound back into goal (and it may have possibly worked on occasions). Only a theory though.