During a break between my two games at the weekend I started watching another for about 15 minutes.
In the space of about 3 minutes the defending teams left back had 4 shouts of hand ball against him. One clear chest, another two were the ball bouncing up and hitting his hand, totally ball to hand and last was him cheating it suspiciously close to his shoulder. The ref didn't give any, which I agreed with. Then the attacker breaks passed the same left back and the ball bounces up and hits the striker on the hand, but he's through on goal. Seemed again to be ball to hand but the ref blew for a free kick. Causing a bit of a stink having waved away so many hand ball claims before.
Personally I think it was the right call as the defending ones would have been very harsh free kick / penalties to give. But as the striker was through on goal I can see why it was given.
What is everyone else's opinion? Does the result of blowing for a handball have an influence on whether you'd give it or not?
In the space of about 3 minutes the defending teams left back had 4 shouts of hand ball against him. One clear chest, another two were the ball bouncing up and hitting his hand, totally ball to hand and last was him cheating it suspiciously close to his shoulder. The ref didn't give any, which I agreed with. Then the attacker breaks passed the same left back and the ball bounces up and hits the striker on the hand, but he's through on goal. Seemed again to be ball to hand but the ref blew for a free kick. Causing a bit of a stink having waved away so many hand ball claims before.
Personally I think it was the right call as the defending ones would have been very harsh free kick / penalties to give. But as the striker was through on goal I can see why it was given.
What is everyone else's opinion? Does the result of blowing for a handball have an influence on whether you'd give it or not?