Hi there,
I've been wondering today about advantage and consecutive fouls. In particular, I have been considering the following situation:
I'm under the impression that the correct course of action is option 3. My reasoning being as follows: the referee has already identified that the player from team B has indeed committed a foul on the player from team A. At the point of the second foul, the referee has not yet played advantage, and is still determining whether or not an advantage is possible for team A. If a free-kick is awarded to team B, this is surely not advantageous to team A, and therefore the referee could not possibly play advantage for team A (thus stopping play to administer a free kick to team A for the original foul).
What are your opinions?
Jez
I've been wondering today about advantage and consecutive fouls. In particular, I have been considering the following situation:
A player from team A is fouled by a player from team B. The player from team A stumbles, but maintains possession of the ball. The referee keeps a close eye, anticipating to play advantage for team A. However, once the player from team A regains his balance, he (still possessing the ball) replies to the original foul by committing his own foul on the player from team B.
What do you think the appropriate action is?
- Play on, as both fouls were equal in severity and could be regarded as "50-50"
- Stop play and award a free kick to team B, as the player from team A committed a foul where no advantage could be found for team B
- Stop play and award a free kick to team A, as no advantage could be found from the original foul committed by team B
- Stop play and conduct a dropped-ball, as both players committed fouls
I'm under the impression that the correct course of action is option 3. My reasoning being as follows: the referee has already identified that the player from team B has indeed committed a foul on the player from team A. At the point of the second foul, the referee has not yet played advantage, and is still determining whether or not an advantage is possible for team A. If a free-kick is awarded to team B, this is surely not advantageous to team A, and therefore the referee could not possibly play advantage for team A (thus stopping play to administer a free kick to team A for the original foul).
What are your opinions?
Jez