RefSix

Law question

#1
Hi all just want to check a law with you as I want to be 100% sure if it ever occurs.
If, when a penalty is being taken, the attacker stops the run up and wants to re do the run is this allowed?
Is this a re-take?
Just want it be sure and I am doing 1 law every couple of days and haven’t quite covered this one yet.

Thanks for your help.
 

Big Cat

RefChat Addict
#2
Hi all just want to check a law with you as I want to be 100% sure if it ever occurs.
If, when a penalty is being taken, the attacker stops the run up and wants to re do the run is this allowed?
Is this a re-take?
Just want it be sure and I am doing 1 law every couple of days and haven’t quite covered this one yet.

Thanks for your help.
The ball is in play when it is kicked and moved forwards. That's it, so yes the taker could begin the run-up again. The referee would need to decide if the conduct merited Unsporting Behaviour or if there was genuine reason to halt the run-up (like a slip)
 
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#3
The ball is in play when it is kicked and moved forwards. That's it, so yes the taker could begin the run-up again. The referee would need to decide if the conduct merited Unsporting Behaviour or if there was genuine reason to halt the run-up (like a slip)
Ok thanks for clarifying.
 

socal lurker

Well-Known Member
#4
It could also, potentially, be delaying the restart if the kicker is taking a really long time. But in the real world you are extremely unlikely to see someone do that--unless there is something weird like losing his footing.

As an aside, I believe there was a study a few years ago that suggested that the longer gap between the whistle and the PK being kicked, the more likely the kick was to miss.

(This is, of course, distinct form a fake at the ball which is inherently misconduct.)
 

Big Cat

RefChat Addict
#5
Ok thanks for clarifying.
Although your query referenced the penalty kick, the answer comes from Laws 8 and 9
In particular, 'if an offence occurs when the ball is not in play, this does not change how play is restarted'
So even if the taker was sanctioned for any other offence, the PK is the only means by which play can be restarted. Note also that the PK must be taken before HT or FT can happen
 
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socal lurker

Well-Known Member
#6
The ball is in play when it is kicked and moved forwards. That's it, so yes the taker could begin the run-up again. The referee would need to decide if the conduct merited Unsporting Behaviour or if there was genuine reason to halt the run-up (like a slip)
Nitpick: PK is now in play when kicked and clearly moves--forward was removed from that part of Law 14 when "clearly" was added to restarts. (Of course, if it moves backwards it is also immediately a violation, so not really a difference that matters.)

Law 9 is brief, but this belies its significance
You lost me--how does Law 9 apply here?
 

Big Cat

RefChat Addict
#7
Nitpick: PK is now in play when kicked and clearly moves--forward was removed from that part of Law 14 when "clearly" was added to restarts. (Of course, if it moves backwards it is also immediately a violation, so not really a difference that matters.)



You lost me--how does Law 9 apply here?
Nitpick: Okeydokey
Law 9: maybe I digressed. The word re-take in the OP implied the ball had transitioned into play at some point
 

one

RefChat Addict
#8
If, when a penalty is being taken, the attacker stops the run up and wants to re do the run is this allowed?
Is this a re-take?
So long as he has not kicked the ball, he can (go back and) start another run up.

If he faked to kick the ball at the end of his run up (but didn't kick it), you caution him before starting the process with a new whistle and he starts his run up again.

As @Big Cat pointed out "re-take' is the wrong term to use here because he didn't take it in the first place.
 

ASM

Moderator
Staff member
#9
If he faked to kick the ball at the end of his run up (but didn't kick it), you caution him before starting the process with a new whistle and he starts his run up again.
Currently that’s not correct.
“LOTG p118” said:
except for the following when play will be stopped and restarted with an indirect free kick, regardless of whether or not a goal is scored:
  • Feinting to kick the ball once the kicker has completed the run-up
So at least until 1 June it’s an IDFK
 

one

RefChat Addict
#10
Currently that’s not correct.

So at least until 1 June it’s an IDFK
I had thought that until last week too. But note the date here.

Also this email this week. The text in blue is from DE. Note the use of the word clarification an not change (I have a feeling the Q&A may have been instigated by my question). I think the 'clarification' for next year will cause confusion but that is another matter as discussed in IFAB GM 133 thread.

1552637149465.png
 

Big Cat

RefChat Addict
#11
I had thought that until last week too. But note the date here.

Also this email this week. The text in blue is from DE. Note the use of the word clarification an not change (I have a feeling the Q&A may have been instigated by my question). I think the 'clarification' for next year will cause confusion but that is another matter as discussed in IFAB GM 133 thread.

View attachment 3281
We could forgive @willt2004 for wishing he never asked!? 🤔
 

socal lurker

Well-Known Member
#13
I had thought that until last week too. But note the date here.

Also this email this week. The text in blue is from DE. Note the use of the word clarification an not change (I have a feeling the Q&A may have been instigated by my question). I think the 'clarification' for next year will cause confusion but that is another matter as discussed in IFAB GM 133 thread.

View attachment 3281
That kinda makes sense to me. The "evil" of the feint is that the kick is taken while the GK reacts to the feint. So I can see saying that if the kick isn't actually taken, the worst of the evil doesn't occur, so the PK need not be forfeited.
 
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