A&H

Indirect free kicks

Tom_R

Member
Level 5 Referee
Obviously you can’t score directly from an indirect free kick but I can’t find anything about the goalkeeper touching the ball before it goes in the goal. If the goalkeeper or another player deflected the ball would the goal be allowed?
 
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Yes, the ball just has to touch another player after the IDFK is taken. That could be a teammate, defender or goalkeeper.
 
As soon as the ball touches a player other than the kick taker it’s “live” and a goal can be scored.

That’s partly where the myth that a team has to pass the ball, and can’t shoot cones from. People conflate “cannot score directly” with “cannot shoot”.
 
One more thing with IDFKs with pass backs it the kick taken from where the pass started or where the keeper picked it up?
 
One more thing with IDFKs with pass backs it the kick taken from where the pass started or where the keeper picked it up?
Where the keeper handles the ball. Until that point no offence has been committed.

Just remember that for it to be a ‘pass back’ the pass must be deliberate, intended for the keeper and played with the foot.
 
Where the keeper handles the ball. Until that point no offence has been committed.

Just remember that for it to be a ‘pass back’ the pass must be deliberate, intended for the keeper and played with the foot.
And you're right Will, the reason we, as referees, shouldn't lightly be using the phrase 'pass back' is that a ball kicked forwards to the GK can just as easily be an offence. Also worth noting that a defender stopping / trapping the ball (with his foot) for the GK can also end up becoming an offence.
 
Also worth noting that a defender stopping / trapping the ball (with his foot) for the GK can also end up becoming an offence.
Had discussions about this with FA CORE coaches and they’re adamant that it must be a deliberate pass clearly intended for the goalkeeper. Which would mean that trapping the ball would be allowed as It’s not been kicked or passed.

Law says:
“it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate”
 
Interesting. I (respectfully!) disagree with their opinion but can understand their rationale. For me, the spirit of this law is that any deliberate play (with the foot) by a defender, that is intended for the GK, should be penalised if the GK then plays it with their hands. I would always err on the side of the defensive team if there was doubt in my mind (not least because of the IFK in the penalty area nightmare!) but if it's clearcut then I'd have no hesitation.
 
Had discussions about this with FA CORE coaches and they’re adamant that it must be a deliberate pass clearly intended for the goalkeeper. Which would mean that trapping the ball would be allowed as It’s not been kicked or passed.

Law says:
“it has been deliberately kicked to the goalkeeper by a team-mate”
That's not correct. Trapping the ball clearly meets the definition of kicking given in the Glossary section of the Laws of the Game. It goes as follows:

Kick
The ball is kicked when a player makes contact with it the foot and/or the ankle

(Although actually there's a slight typo in the wording, there should be another "with" before "the foot").
 
Trapping the ball is a kick as per law definition but also I could be considered as a trick to circumvent the law
 
How else do you kick the ball though?
Physically can’t kick it with any other part of your body!
The definition was added to the LOTG when this law was changed, and is just one of several definitions which may seem daft, but are necessary to give precision, in this case because the ankle is included.
It followed a player in Germany attempting to circumvent the law by taking a free kick with his knee in order to play it to the goalkeeper.
 
Interesting. I (respectfully!) disagree with their opinion but can understand their rationale.
I completely agree with their opinion - but it's important to note that that's because as far as I can tell, the post only indicates that the part about it having to be a deliberate kick clearly intended for the goalkeeper, comes from the FA Core coaches.

The way I read the post, the bit about this meaning it doesn't apply if the ball is simply trapped, has been added by @Will_A based on his reasoning and is incorrect because of the Laws definition of a kick which I quoted.
 
How else do you kick the ball though?
Physically can’t kick it with any other part of your body!
As far as I recall, the definition was given precisely because there was some debate over which part(s) of the body were included in the meaning of the word "kick".

Some had argued for example, that the shin should be included (or even the knee, as @ChasObserverRefDeveloper mentions). The IFAB wanted it to be clear that only contact with the foot or ankle could be considered as a kick.
 
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