The last goal is a foul by Sterling, no?
It's a shove in the back, not shoulder to shoulder... hard for the ref at distance... but did the VAR crew knock off early?
So are the FA rules we go by different to the FIFA/ UEFA rules? I'm confused.
FA rules we use... The first penalty isn't a penalty. It wasn't deliberate, arm in natural position and moving AWAY from the ball. Also take into consideration the speed it was pinged at him.
So are the FA rules we go by different to the FIFA/ UEFA rules? I'm confused.
FA rules we use... The first penalty isn't a penalty. It wasn't deliberate, arm in natural position and moving AWAY from the ball. Also take into consideration the speed it was pinged at him.
From the sound of people on this forum, it does seem handling is taught completely different than the rest of the world.
I think in fairness it has always been taught correctly in England,
I think in fairness it has always been taught correctly in England, in that the handling has to be intentional. FIFA and UEFA have since offered guidance / instructions to their referees, as have many national associations, but it hasn't been reflected in the laws of the game. If we look at the law as it is written ...
Handling the ball involves a deliberate act of a player making contact with the ball with the hand or arm.
The following must be considered:
• the movement of the hand towards the ball (not the ball towards the hand)
• the distance between the opponent and the ball (unexpected ball)
• the position of the hand does not necessarily mean that there is an offence
It is therefore not beyond the wit of man to take that how it is written and say that Otamendi did nothing wrong, and I am pretty sure if that happened in the Premier League he wouldn't have been penalised, with or without VAR. The hand certainly didn't move towards the ball that is for sure.
England teaches it one way. UEFA, FIFA, and almost every other FA in the world say this is a PK. But sure, we'll go with England being the only right ones.
England teaches it one way. UEFA, FIFA, and almost every other FA in the world say this is a PK. But sure, we'll go with England being the only right ones.
But that's just the point - "looks like a foul" is not the criteria for reversing a referee's original judgement. As the protocol states, it's:Well this looks like a foul...
not ‘was the decision correct?’ but: ‘was the decision clearly wrong?’
in general, slow motion replays should only be used for facts, e.g. position of offence/player, point of contact for physical offences and handball
While you are right about "clear and obvious error" concept, I have a feeling had VAR reviewed the foul leading up to the first goal there was a good chance he would have deemed it a clear and obvious error. The reason it was not reviewed was while it was in the lead up to the goal, it was not in the ‘Attacking Possession Phase (APP)’ so it can not be reviewed. Schalke got clear possession and control of the ball after the foul which puts the foul out of the reviewable window. There is over two pages explanation for it in the protocol but this is the gist of it.But that's just the point - "looks like a foul" is not the criteria for reversing a referee's original judgement. As the protocol states, it's:
That's something Peter Walton got wrong in discussing Manchester City's first goal. He said the VAR would have looked at it to see if there was a foul in the attacking phase leading to the goal. That's incorrect - VAR should not be looking at "was it a foul?" they should be looking at whether it was a "clear and obvious error" not to have given a foul.
And why was the referee looking at the Morata disallowed goal in slow motion? At least on the highlights I saw, that's all he appeared to look at. From the Laws VAR section: