A&H

Deliberate pass to the goalkeeper?

Yampy

RefChat Addict
Scotland Vs. England - Did Joe Hart pick up a deliberate pass back to him?
About 22:30 in the first half. Looks a interesting situation for the referee but no one bats an eyelid, even the Scots.
 
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Scrap that I must have been asleep ..! Just seen a video of it and it certainly looks like a clanger.
 
Scotland had possession in their half in the centre circle, lost possession in a challenge which went to an England player (Livermore perhaps?) who clears passes the ball back to Hart. Everyone seems to wait for the foul for Scotland, Hart flicks the ball up with his foot and catches the ball. Referee gives nothing by way of a foul and play continues.
Thought it was an interesting situation for the referee because I felt it was clearly a deliberate pass to the keeper and he did handle it. No one seems to have noticed it.
 
My friend put it up on his Fb straight away but I’m technically inept on how to import it on here but it’s a 52 yard blatant back pass.. nobody blinked..... ref allowed Jock strikers to challenge Hart on fly kicks too... schoolboy errors...
 
Watch the ref. There's a quick whistle. GK wouldn't flick the ball up and roll it out like that and then turn his back on the play entirely if the play was live.
 
I didnt see this but I did see 'arry kane going mad asking for Scotland to be penalised after it was thighed back to their gk which made me chuckle how little players know about the "intricacies" in the lotg.
 
Watch the ref. There's a quick whistle. GK wouldn't flick the ball up and roll it out like that and then turn his back on the play entirely if the play was live.
I watched the live feed and I can't say I heard or saw any signal from the referee. (Crowd noise and not in camera view are possible reasons.) I used live pause a couple of times to watch it again and whatever happens with the referee, there's no obvious restart of play.
Interestingly, I've seen the goal highlights from ITV this morning and I watched the game live on Sky and it looks like they had their cameras setup on opposite sides. How often does that happen these days?
 
Interestingly, I've seen the goal highlights from ITV this morning and I watched the game live on Sky and it looks like they had their cameras setup on opposite sides. How often does that happen these days?
I watched the Scottish Cup Final on BBC 2 weeks ago, and noticed that the cameras were on different sides for each match. BBC cameras were on the same side as the benches, ITV were opposite!

While we are on the subject, I thought the free kick given which led to the second Scottish goal was a bit harsh, thought the English player slipped.
 
While we are on the subject, I thought the free kick given which led to the second Scottish goal was a bit harsh, thought the English player slipped.
I think you might see it as unfortunate (if you're an England fan) but in terms of the law it doesn't matter if he slipped. The requirement for a foul to be deliberate was removed from the Laws in 1995. When any of the physical offences against an opponent is committed, whether it was accidental or not is immaterial.
 
i did a double take when i saw the ''passback'' too.. i wasnt concentrating on it so i rewound the play for another look. Watched it just the once and just thought to myself that it must've come off his knee as no player appealed, the commentators didnt mention it, and Joe Hart had no hesitation in picking it up. The angle wasnt great and i think the point of connection between player and ball was slightly obscured for that camera.
 
Someone I know who was at the game is adamant that the referee stopped play for a foul near the half way line. He says that Hart then rolled it out, it was passed to that area and the free kick taken. I've also seen that claimed on Facebook as well, although I haven't seen any video that shows the extended period to validate it.
 
Someone I know who was at the game is adamant that the referee stopped play for a foul near the half way line. He says that Hart then rolled it out, it was passed to that area and the free kick taken. I've also seen that claimed on Facebook as well, although I haven't seen any video that shows the extended period to validate it.
I've just re-watched the incident in full (and replayed it several times, just to be sure). Play was definitely not stopped for a foul and play continued with Hart rolling the ball out and the England defenders playing it out from the back. As others have suggested, it looked like there was potentially a foul on a Scottish player and Hart was probably expecting a whistle that didn't come.

Edit: Just found a YouTube video of it.

 
It looks like the referee put the hand to the mouth (with whistle?) and then there is a one handed pointing or a one handed advantage signal.
That doesn't make any sense to me - if there was any kind of a foul, it was committed by the English defender so there's no way you can play advantage by letting England have the ball.
 
That doesn't make any sense to me - if there was any kind of a foul, it was committed by the English defender so there's no way you can play advantage by letting England have the ball.
Agreed. It all points to a 'brain fart' moment by the referee. It happens to all of us. Still thinking about the foul that he missed three seconds ago and not concentrating on what is happening now.
 
There's also the spirit of the law thing here. Looks at the way Hart rolls the ball out, he obviously thinks play has been stopped and then Cahill also seems to be confused, even raising his arms for advice, before eventually playing on. Hart wouldn't have bounced the ball out like that to start an attack, especially as he immediately turned his back, it just doesn't happen. My mate who was there is adamant he heard a whistle, perhaps that's also what affected the players?

Just as you wouldn't penalise a player if he handled the ball following a rogue whistle, presumably you wouldn't penalising handling a back-pass for the same reason.
 
Was at the game...
as unusual as it seems, the "foul" appeared to be committed by Scotland on England, why the ref thinks its "advantage" when it rolls 30 yards back to keeper, I don't know, however, Scotland player did kinda fall into England. Maybe the ref was gonna give the foul then thought, no, its too soft, play on (as u have the ball, although of course that's not a reason to signal advantage)
 
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